2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 1 One-on-One Questions: 1) What is the normal respiration rate for a resting horse? A: 8-16 breaths per minute (accept anything within this range) S: 174:97 2) Name the four basic riding aids.
A: Hands, Seat (or weight), Legs, Voice (do not accept whips or spurs which are artificial aids) S: 174: 31 3) What is another name for a roached back? A: Convex back S: 175:8 4) What is the varnish-like outer layer of the hoof which helps regulate water evaporation and absorption within the hoof? A: Periople S: 175:20 5) In a gymkhana class, what is the penalty for knocking an object over? A: Five second penalty S: 179:65 6) What breed originated in the Netherlands, and must be solid black, with only minimal white markings accepted on the face? A: Friesian S: 174:69 7) Name 3 of the 6 terms that describe the way of going or stride.
A: Length, Trueness, Pace & Rapidity, Action, Spring, Balance and Rhythm S: 175:26 8) Which joint in the horse’s body is not connected to the rest of the body by any skeletal joints? A: The shoulder S: 175:17 End of One-on-One Questions 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Toss-up Questions: 9) What gaits are required of the five-gaited American Saddlebred? A: Walk, Trot, Stepping Pace (Slow Gait), Rack and Canter S: 174:94 10) What are the five major variations of the basic coat colors? A: Gray, Pinto or Paint, Dun or Buckskin, Palomino, Roan S: 174:75 11) What do the letters ASTM stand for? A: American Society for Testing Materials S: 191R:8 12) What are the 4 basic seats or styles of riding? A: Western (stock), Hunter, Saddle Seat, Easy Gaited (Also accept Dressage) S: 174:31 13) What is the normal resting heart rate of a mature horse? A: 28-40 beats per minute (accept anything within range of 28-52 per 188:52) S: 174:95 14) What name is given to the offspring of the dam? A: Produce S: 174:145 15) The western saddle, western seat and working cow horse evolved together for what two purposes? A: Handling livestock and long distance travel S: 174:32 16) Name 4 of the 5 basic coat colors.
A: Bay; Black; Brown/Seal brown; Chestnut/Sorrel; White S: 174:75-76 17) Where is the Trakehner Horse Association located? A: Newark, Ohio (accept Ohio) S: 174:70 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 16) What is another name for heaves? A: Pulmonary emphysema (also accept broken wind) S: 174:101 19) When using mecate-romal reins, how many fingers are allowed between the reins? A: None S: 179:24 20) What term is used to describe the standard of excellence set up by a breed association for its breed? A: Breed Standard S: 174:67 21) What is the cheapest source of basic nutrients supplied to the horse? A: Pasture and Hay (also accept roughage or water) S: 174:57 22) When riding with split reins, which side does the bight of the rein hang on? A: Same as the hand holding the reins S: 179:24 23) What are the 4-H colors? A: Green and White S: All 4-H literature 24) Define a lateral gait? A: The legs/feet on the same side of the body move as a pair or in sequence S: 174:88 End of Round 1 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 2 One-on-One Questions: 1) A strawberry roan is a combination of white and what base color? A: Chestnut S: 174:76 2) Name two of the most common external parasites of horses.
A: Flies; Ticks; Mosquitoes S: 174:140 3) Name 2 joints found in the foreleg of the horse.
A: Shoulder, Elbow, Knee, Fetlock, Pastern and Coffin S: 175:11 4) What three terms describe muscle? A: Volume; Length; Quality S: 175:37 5) What is the common name for the third phalanx? A: Coffin bone or Pedal bone S: 175:25 6) What medication must be given to a horse that has gone into anaphylactic shock? A: Epinephrine S: 174:123 7) What term is given to an animal that consumes mainly grasses and plants? A: Herbivore S: 174:5 8) In relation to the horse’s hoof, what term is used to describe the area between the sole and the wall of the hoof? A: White line S: 174:104 End of One-on-One Questions 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Toss-up Questions: 9) Name 3 breeds of Easy Gaited Horses.
A: Tennessee Walking Horse; Missouri Fox Trotter; Rocky Mountain Horse; Kentucky Mountain Saddle Horse; Mountain Pleasure Horse; Paso Fino; Peruvian Paso S: 174:66 10) What are the 5 types of nutrients all animals need? A: Water; Energy; Protein; Vitamins; Minerals S: 174:57 11) In the showmanship class, how many points is the appearance of the animal worth? A: 30 points S: 179:15 12) Give the common name for a bacterial infection of the hair pores in the skin.
A: Rain rot S: 174:141 13) Describe the length of a stride.
A: The distance from the point of the breaking over to the point of contact on the same foot.
S: 175:27 14) Define a “vector”.
A: A carrier of disease from horse to horse such as flies or mosquitoes S: 174:122 15) What are 3 of the most common draft horses shown in the United States? A: Belgian; Percheron; Clydesdale; Shire (do not accept Suffolk) S: 175:37 16) Where is the safest place to give an injection to a horse? A: The neck S: 174:124 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 17) List 4 ways you can tell if your horse is sick.
A: Loss of appetite; High temperature; Rapid breathing; Elevated heart rate; Droopiness; Coughing; Excessive sweating; Nasal discharge; Inflamed membranes; lameness; pawing; unnatural heat or swelling in any joints.
S: 174:95 18) What is the difference between dishing and paddling? A: Dishing – foot swings in while walking; Paddling – hoof swings outward while walking S: 174:85 19) Where is the proximal seasmoid bone located? A: At the back of the fetlock joint S: 175:11 20) At what age will a horse reach a full mouth? A: 5 years S: 174:116 21) What is the anatomical name for the bone that forms the forehead of the horse? A: Frontal bone S: 175:11 22) How many poles are used in a pole bending class? A: Six S: 179:66 23) How many obstacles should be used in a Trail In-hand class? A: Six S: 179:40 24) What are the two most common grains used in today’s horse rations? A: Corn and Oats S: 174:58 End of Round Two 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 3 One-on-One Questions: 1) What term describes a wide, white strip running down the horse’s face to its lips? A: Blaze S: 174:76 2) Which brush should you use after the curry comb? A: The stiff brush (also accept dandy brush or body brush) C: 191R:18 3) How can you tell if a horse is dehydrated? A: Gently pick up a fold of skin from the horse and release it.
It should return to normal in one or two seconds.
S: 174:97 4) What term is used to describe when the toe of the hind foot strikes the underside of the fore foot, and is generally seen at the trot? A: Forging S: 174:85 5) What term is used to describe a group of animals within a breed, all of which trace directly to a common ancestor? A: Family S: 174:68 6) What is the common name for ascarids? A: Roundworms S: 174:141 7) Which two knots are most useful to horsemen? A: Quick release knot; Bowline knot S: 174:21 8) Which of the four riding aids should be used as little as possible and needs reinforcement from other aids? A: Voice S: 174:32 End of One-on-One Questions 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Toss-up Questions: 9) In what state is the breed association for the Quarter Horse located? A: Texas S: 174:69 10) What is the term for a male horse that has been castrated? A: Gelding S: 174:144 11) In what showmanship class may the exhibitor use a show stick to assist in setting the horse up? A: Draft showmanship S: 174:45 12) Define the term “legging up”.
A: Hours of walking and trotting a horse to get them in condition.
S: 174:54 13) what 4H class is conformation and quality of the horse judged? A: Production S: 179:10 14) What is the v-shaped, spongy structure on the underside of the foot? A: Frog S: 175:25 15) What is the name of the vertebrae that make up the horse’s neck? A: Cervical Vertebrae S: 175:11 16) What term is used to describe an animal with draft horse breeding? A: Cold-blooded S: 174:68 17) Which parasite migrates in the mouth for 7-14 days? A: Bots S: 174:132 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 18) What type of tack is required for all gymkhana classes? A: Western S: 179:63 19) What can a horseman do to keep his tack in good repair, comfortable and last longer? A: Regularly clean it with saddle soap and oil it.
S: 174:147 20) What is another name for the fender on a Western saddle? A: Sudadero S: 174:23 21) On which part of the upper molars do the sharp points develop? A: Outside S: 174:118 22) Most horses eat what percent of their body weight in dry feed per day? A: Two S: 174:59 23) Which draft breed originated in Scotland? A: Clydesdale S: 174:71 24) What disease is caused by the bacteria Ehrlichia ristici? A: Potomac Horse Fever S: 174:126 End of Round 3 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 4 One-on-One Questions: 1) What do the letters SEI stand for? A: Safety Equipment Institute S: 191:8 2) Name the two sets of teeth a horse will have in its lifetime.
A: Temporary (Milk; Deciduous) Teeth; Permanent Teeth S: 174:116 3) How many jumps are required in a Hunter Hack class? A: Two S: 179:78 4) When is the universal birth date for all horses? A: January 1st S: 179:11 5) What term describes the ligaments that hold the bones of the hock together? A: Bursa S: 175:22 6) How should you hold the horse’s rear leg when lifting it? A: Hold the rear leg so that the rear cannon bone is perpendicular to the ground. (accept any correct description) S: 191:19 7) Name 4 parts of a breast-strap harness.
A: Check rein; Back pad; Lines; Crupper; Tug (Trace); Shaft loop; Breast strap; Bit; Blinds; Bridle; Belly band.
S: 174:29 8) What is the anatomical name for the shoulder? A: Scapula S: 175:11 End of One-on-One Questions 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Toss-up Questions: 9) What term is used to describe calcium deposits on a horse with buck knees? A: Osslets S: 175:19 10) How much space should there be between you and the horse in front of you? A: At least One horse length S: 191:13 11) What are the 3 Paso gaits? A: Paso Fino; Paso Largo; Paso Corto S: 174:69 12) Easy-gaited horses may be ridden in what two seats? A: Western or English (Saddleseat) S: 179:32, 22, 25 13) How do pinworms enter the horse? A: The eggs are eaten from being on the grass S: 174:135 14) What part of the western bridle goes in front of the ears? A: Browband S: 174:26 15) Define a piebald horse.
A: A horse with black and white spotting only.
S: 174:78 16) Two Part Question.
What is the anatomical name for the knee and hock? A: Knee – Carpus; Hock – Tarsus S: 175:11 17) What two tendons run down the back of the leg? A: Deep Digital Flexor Tendon; Superficial Digital Flexor Tendon S: 175:24 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 18) What tool is used to smooth and finish balancing the foot after nipping off excess hoof with nippers? A: Rasp S: 174:108 19) When ground driving, how long should your lines be? A: At least 25’ S: 179:36 20) How many common types of bots exist in the United States? A: Three – Common, Throat (chin), Nose bots S: 174:132 21) What disease is the Coggins Test used to identify? A: EIA – Equine Infectious Anemia S: 174:126 22) Where do you take the heart rate of a horse with a stethoscope? A: Left side of horse directly behind the elbow S: 174:95 23) How wide should a curb strap be? A: ½ inch S: 191R:9 24) Describe a “cinchy” horse.
A: One that responds negatively to having the cinch tightened (such as – biting, bucking, lying down, etc) S: 191:9 End of Round 4 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 5 One-on-One Questions: 1) What is the normal color of mucous membrane? A: Light pink (accept Pink) S: 174:97 2) What will happen to a poorly balanced hoof? A: Places excessive stress on the tendons and ligaments in the lower leg and can cause lameness.
S: 174:108 3) What is the average growth rate of a healthy hoof? A: 3/8 inch per month (normal range 1/6 to ½ inch) S: 174:107 4) What term is used to describe a horse that has one purebred parent and one parent of unknown ancestry and is not able to be registered with any breed registry? A: Grade animal S: 174:68 5) What is considered to be the most important point to evaluate in pleasure class? A: S: Manners 175:40 6) What are the 3 qualities of good hay? A: Clean, Bright, Leafy, and Free of dust, mold and decay.
S: 174:58 7) Describe how to safely groom the lower legs? A: Bend over, Never sit down or Kneel down S: 191R:17 8) What tissues suffer from small stongyles? A: Gut wall (wall of intestinal tract) S: 174:134 End of One-on-One Questions 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Toss-up Questions: 9) What is the normal heart rate for yearling horses? A: 40 to 80 beats per minute (accept anything within this range) S: 174:96 10) Name 5 of the 12 parts of an English saddle.
A: Cantle, Seat, Pommel, Length of seat, Stirrup bar, Stirrup iron, Knee roll, Stirrup tread, Stirrup leather, Flap, Skirt, and Panel.
S: 174:24 11) What term is given to the time when a mare is unreceptive to the stallion? A: Diestrus S: 174:144 12) Name 3 color breeds.
A: American Albino, American Buckskin, American Paint Horse, Appaloosa, Palomino, Pinto.(accept Albino, Buckskin, Paint) S: 174:70 13) In Showmanship, the “quadrant method” divides the horse into how many sections? A: 4 S: 174:48 14) What are the 2 general types of American Saddlebred horses? A: 3-gaited and 5-gaited S: 175:28 15) Name two draft horse breeds without feathers.
A: Belgian and Percheron S: 174:71 16) Name 2 diseases that cannot be transmitted from horse to horse or horse to human.
A: Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM), West Nile Virus S: 174:126-127 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 17) What parasite is spread by an infected horse rubbing its tail on surfaces and depositing sticky eggs around the environment? A: Pinworms S: 174:135 18) Who will interpret and clarify rules and decide cases of eligibility for a particular class? A: Steward S: 179:7 19) Explain the difference between Monkey mouth and Parrot mouth.
A: Monkey Mouth – Lower jaw extending past upper jaw Parrot Mouth – Upper jaw extending past lower jaw S: 175:15 20) Describe the color “buckskin”.
A: Light yellow body color with a black mane and tail (NO dorsal stripe) (accept pale to dark yellow as per 174:75) S: 175:42 21) What term describes the process of filing off the sharp points on the teeth? A: Floating S: 174:118 22) What is a horse’s natural reaction to surprise? A: To bolt or kick (only need to give one answer) S: 174:21 23) What are 3 symptoms of a horse with rabies? A: Personality changes (depression, excited, nervous, aggressive); Loss of appetite; Inability to swallow. (Although not in reference would also accept fever, teeth grinding, facial paralysis, colic, urinary incontinence, convulsions, coma, lameness, hindleg incoordination or paralysis, death, sensitive to noise, excessive salivation.) S: 174:126 24) What is the common term for ossified lateral cartilages? A: Sidebone S: 175:20 End of Round 5 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 6 One-on-One Questions: 1) What draft breed is the least commonly seen in the United States? A: Suffolk Punch S: 175:37 2) Name three common protein supplements used in horse rations.
A: Soybean Meal; Cottonseed Meal; Linseed Meal; S: 174:58 3) What breed association has the initials A.A.O.B.P.P.H? A: Peruvian Paso S: 174:69 4) A “clay bank” dun has what color mane and tail? A: Red S: 175:42 5) Why are proteins important to a horse? A: Building blocks for growth and repair of tissues S: 174:57 6) What is the most reliable method of detecting internal parasites? A: Microscopic Fecal Examination S: 174:130 7) Name 3 of the most common colors of Standardbred horses.
A: Bay; Brown; Chestnut; Black S: 175:34 8) Is parrot mouth a dominant or recessive genetic defect? A: S: Dominant 175:15 End of One-on-One Questions 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Toss-up Questions 9) When can an Australian saddle be used in a 4-H Horse Show? A: Only in the Trail class S: 179:44 10) What parasite causes summer sores in the horse? A: Stomach worms (Habronema) S: 174:136 11) Define unsoundness in the horse.
A: Abnormality that will interfere with the usefulness of the horse.
S: 174:85 BONUS: Name 5 common internal parasites.
A: Roundworms (ascarids); Bots; Large Strongyles (bloodworms); Pinworms; Stomach worms; Threadworms; Tapeworms, Small Strongyles S: 174:131-137 12) What term is used to describe inflammation of the laminae of the hoof? A: Laminitis S: 174:100 13) How many splint bones does a horse have? A: 8 – one on each side of the cannon bones S: 175:24 14) Who is primarily responsible for the development of the Appaloosa breed? A: The Nez Perce Indian Tribe S: 175:33 BONUS: Name the 5 types of vertebrae.
A: Sacral; Lumbar; Cervical; Coccygeal; Thoracic S: 175:11 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 15) What is melanoma? A: A growth that often occurs on the anus, tail and sometimes head of older gray horses.
S: 174:101 16) What is the maximum length of a Dressage whip? A: 4 feet in total length S: 179:87 BONUS: Name 6 parts of the hoof.
A: Wall; Heel; Frog; Bar; Sole; White line; Toe; Quarter; Bulb (also accept Commisures, Sulcus) S: 174:104 17) What is the single greatest cause of diseases in horses? A: Poor management S: 174:122 18) What term is used to describe when a horse gets stuck while trying to roll? A: Cast S: 191:25 19) Define the term “get”.
A: The offspring of the sire (male parent) S: 174:142 20) What is the recommended height you should hang a hay bag or hay net? A: Wither height S: 191:27 BONUS: Name 3 pieces of equipment that are prohibited in Hunter or Saddle seat classes.
A: Rowelled spurs; Leg wraps (exception – Working Hunter, Hunter Hack, Equitation Over Fences in inclement weather); Draw reins; Flash, Figure 8 or Dropped cavessons; Tiedowns or Martingales for Saddle Seat or Hunter Under Saddle; Artificial appliances such as wired ears, tail braces, mouth controls (tongue ties).
S: 179:27 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 21) What marking is being described here: a long narrow band of white running from the forehead toward the muzzle? A: A strip (stripe) S: 174:77 22) When does the Galvayne’s groove appear? A: 10-12 years of age S: 174:117 23) What are the 3 basic types of English styles of riding in 4-H A: Saddle seat; Dressage; Hunt seat S: 174:25 24) Where did the Friesian horse originate? A: Netherlands S: 174:69 End of Round 6 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 7 One-on-One Questions: 1) Name 3 different kinds of ponies.
A: POA, Shetland, Welsh, Quarter Pony, Hackney (also accept Connemara and other pony breeds not listed) S: 175:35-36 2) Failure to wear an exhibitor number or wearing the incorrect number in a class will result in what for the exhibitor? A: Disqualification S: 179:10 3) Describe the term cow-hocked.
A: When viewed from the rear hocks pointing inward (toes outward) S: 175:20 4) What is the visible covering of the hoof called? A: Hoof wall S: 175:25 5) Describe the snip.
A: A small patch of white running over the muzzle often to the lips S: 174:76 6) Define an Albino’s color characteristics.
A: Light colored body that appears white, the eyes are blue, and the skin is pink S: 175:42 7) In a Hunter class what hunter-style bridles do the horses wear? A: Snaffle, Pelham, Kimberwicke, or Full bridle S: 174:44 8) In a trail class, when is it acceptable to change the rein hand? A: At the beginning of an obstacle, but it must be returned after completing the obstacle.
S: 179:32 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division End of One-on-One Questions Toss-up Questions: 9) What is another name for the sudadero on a Western saddle? A: Fender S: 174:23 10) What is the maximum legal height of a port on a western bit? A: 3 ½ inches B: 179:21 11) Is the genetic defect, parrot mouth, in horses a dominant or recessive trait? A: Dominant S: 175:15 12) Why have draft horses been bred in the past to have narrow rear leg placement? A: More power and less likely to get tangled in the traces (only need to give one answer) S: 175:14 BONUS: What are the suggested distances for “in-and-out” fences for small ponies, medium ponies, and large ponies and horses? A: Small ponies – 20 feet; Medium ponies – 20 to 22 feet; Large ponies & Horses – 22 to 24 feet S: 179:76 13) What term is used when referring to abdominal pain caused by digestive disturbances? A: Colic S: 174:100 14) By nature, do horses pull against pressure or move towards pressure? A: Pull against pressure S: 191R:12 15) Which class penalizes the rider for using voice cues? A: Dressage S: 174:31 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 16) What are the four major factors to obtaining well conditioned and groomed horse? A: Balanced nutrition, Proper health care, Exercise & conditioning, and Good daily grooming S: 174:51 BONUS: What are the 5 points used to evaluate performance in a pleasure horse class? A: Functional correctness, Manners, Responsiveness, Gait quality, Conformation S: 175:40 17) What are bog spavins? A: Fluid filled sacks that are under the hide in the hock region S: 175:22 18) How many teeth will a 5 year old mare have erupted? A: 36 to 40 S: 174:116 19) What are concentrates? A: Feeds that by weight are relatively high in nutrients and low in fiber S: 174:58 20) What term is given to a group of horses having a common origin and possessing certain distinguishable characteristics that are transmittable to their offspring? A: Breed S: 174:67 BONUS: List the correct footfall sequence for a horse cantering on the right lead.
A: 1) Left hind, 2) Right hind & Left front together, and 3) Right front S: 174:93 21) Name the three color patterns of Paint/Pinto horses.
A: Over; Tobiano; Tovero S: 174:75 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 22) What types of drugs are strictly prohibited in 4H shows? A: Any drugs that affects the Central Nervous System, like stimulants or depressants.
S: 179:9 23) What is the common name for ossified lateral cartilages? A: Sidebones S: 175:20 BONUS: After the age of 12, identifying a horse’s age by its teeth becomes difficult.
Name 3 things to look for when determining the age of a smooth mouthed horse.
A: Grinding surface – turn from oval to triangular; Angle of incisors – as age increases, angle decreases; Galvayne’s groove – appears at upper corner incisor at 10-12, full length at 20, gone at 30.
S: 174:117 24) Describe a full bridle.
A: A bridle with a Weymouth (curb) bit, a bridoon (small snaffle), and 2 sets of reins S: 174:41 End of Round 7 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 8 One-on-One Questions: 1) What are the four (4) primary uses of light horses? A: Riding, Racing, Driving, Utility on the farm S: 175:28 2) Describe a successful feeding program for horses.
A: Using the combination of feeds that provides needed nutrients at the lowest possible cost.
S: 174:59 3) What term is used to describe a book of record published by breed registry associations for purebred horses, ponies and jacks? A: Stud Book S: 174:68 4) In Hunt Seat, at which gait is the rider’s forward inclination the greatest? A: The posting trot (accept trot) S: 174:36 5) What gene is responsible for a horse that is “mealy-mouthed”? A: Pangare gene S: 174:76 6) What term is used to for short, quick, choppy strides? A: Trappy S: 174:85 7) This term always indicates a dark mane and tail and usually is accompanied by black on the lower legs.
A: Black Points S: 174:78 8) What 4-H class(s) prohibits the use of a leased animal as a project animal? A: Production Division classes S: 179:34 End of One-on-One 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Toss-up Questions: 9) Name two (2) types of harnesses used in the horse industry.
A: Breast strap buggy harness and Collar buggy harness (accept breast strap and collar) S: 174:29 10) What term is used to describe an abnormality that may detract from the appearance of a horse but does not affect his serviceability? A: Blemish S: 175:26 11) Where is a horse’s vision the best? A: Beside the horse S: 174:21 12) On a three-piece snaffle bit, what is the maximum diameter of the connecting ring? A: 1 ¼ inch S: 179:23 BONUS: Starting at letter A of the small dressage arena and going counter clockwise, what are the letters on the perimeter of the arena? A: A, F, B, M, C, H, E, K S: 179:89 13) What are 3 types of Equine Infectious Anemia? A: Acute; Chronic; Inapparent Carrier S: 174:126 14) How old can a horse be to go into a ground driving class? A: A yearling or older S: 179:39 BONUS: When hiring a judge for a show, list three (3) things that are the show management’s responsibility to provide for the judge.
A: 1) Contract listing fees and expenses; 2) List of classes to be judged and additional county rules; 3) Show day, make introductions and provide for the comfort of the judge while working.
S: 179:8 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 15) The rider’s legs are used to move the horse in what directions? A: Forward, Back and Laterally S: 174:31 16) What are three (3) things you should check for in mangers and feedboxes? A: Nails, Splinters, Holes and Obstructions S: 174:61 17) A horse should appear to have a short back in relation to what type of underline? A: Long underline S: 175:12 18) What is another term used to describe a horse with a roach back? A: Convex back S: 175:16 BONUS: Name three (3) minor parasites that can affect a horse.
A: Stomach worms, Pinworms, Tapeworms and Threadworms S: 174:135-137 19) What bone is located between the frontal bone and the nasal bone? A: Maxillary bone S: 175:11 20) Define the term “inversion”.
A: Respiration rate exceeds the heart rate.
S: 174:97 21) What direction should you clean the hoof out from? A: Heal to Sole (toe) S: 191R:19 22) Describe and distinguish between chestnut and sorrel coat colors.
A: Sorrel horses have a red coat that may range from tan to a rich mahogany red.
Lighter shades are sorrels while Darker shades are chestnuts.
S: 174:74 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 23) What is the primary concern of roundworm infestation in the horse? A: Rupture or blockage of the Small Intestine S: 174:131 BONUS: List five (5) common symptoms of colic in the horse.
A: Increased heart rate, Increased respiration rate, Increased temperature, Sweating, Restless, Pawing, Pacing, Repeatedly lying down and rising, Biting and/or Licking sides, Refuse to eat/drink, May not defecate or urinate.
S: 174:100 24) What dewormer is effective against all major internal parasites? A: Praziquantel (Equimax or Quest Gold) S: 174:139 End of Round 8 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 9 One-on-One Questions: 1) Which vertebrae are located between the cervical and lumbar vertebrae? A: Thoracic S: 175:11 2) Name the part of the English saddle between the skirt and stirrup iron where the stirrup leather is attached.
A: Stirrup bar S: 174:24 3) What do tan or brown hairs on the muzzle or the flank on a black horse indicate? A: It is not a true black horse but a seal brown S: 174:74 4) What part of the western saddle is located between the pommel and the cantle? A: Seat S: 174:23 5) When should you not offer water free choice to a horse? A: When the horse is overheated S: 174:78 6) Define the “cross” markings on a horse.
A: The dark line over the withers from side to side.
S: 174:78 7) What term is used to describe the height of stride resulting from knee and hock flexion? A: Action S: 175:27 8) What term is used to describe the semi-horny formations on the leg of a horse? A: Chestnuts (also accept ergots) S: 175:17 End of One-On-One Questions 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Toss-up Questions: 9) What breed of horse originated in the Ozarks? A: Missouri Fox Trotter S: 174:69 10) Name three types of horses that may be shown with ribbon braids in showmanship.
A: Saddle type, Draft, and Easy-gaited S: 179:14-15 11) What is the difference between a rat-tail and a broom-tail? A: A Rat-tail horse has little hair on its tail, and a Broom-tail horse has a heavy, coarse tail.
S: 174:78 BONUS: Give three (3) criteria by which to divide classes in a horse show.
A: 1) Age of exhibitor, 2) Experience level of horse or rider, 3) To maintain safety S: 179:11 12) Where did the Lipizzaner originate? A: Spain S: 174:69 13) What side should you mount your horse on when preparing to ride? A: Usually on the left side, but horse should be comfortable being mounted on either the left or right side.
S: 191R:20 14) In a trail class, what is the distance between trot-over poles? A: 36 to 42 inches S: 179:44 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 15) What two body systems can be affected by moldy, musty, rotten hay? A: The Digestive system and the Respiratory system S: 174:12 BONUS: Name the three (3) divisions of Working Hunter in 4H horse shows.
A: Green Hunters, Low Hunter, Regular Hunters S: 179:75-76 16) What is the term for a bruised and discolored area of the sole of the foot, usually located in the angles between the bars of the foot and the hoof wall? A: Corn S: 175:25 17) What is the common name for the carpus and tarsus? A: Carpus – knee Tarsus – hock S: 175:11 18) How often should you have your horse trimmed or their shoes rest? A: Every 6-8 weeks S: 175:25 19) What is the term for a rail laying on the ground in front of a jump? A: Ground Pole S: 179:74 BONUS: What dewormer kills onchocerca and bots? A: Ivermectin (Quest also acceptable) S: 172:35 20) What breed of horse is most commonly called the “Peacock” of the show ring? A: The American Saddlebred S: 175:28 21) Which 4H horse resource is required to be read by all youth and their parents/guardians who are new to the 4H Horse Program? A: Horses, Safety, and You S: 191R:7 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 22) In which joint do you find the patella bone? A: Stifle S: 175:11 23) What is the anatomical name for the coffin bone? A: Third Phalanx S: 175:25 BONUS: Name four (4) markings on the horse’s leg.
A: Coronet, Half-pastern, Pastern, Sock/Half-Stocking, Stocking, Ankle; Ermine or Distal spots, Zebra stripes S: 174:76-78 24) What breed of horse is characterized by a very refined head and great endurance? A: Arabian S: 174:69 End of Round 9 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 10 One-on-One Questions: 1) What are the four classifications of horses according to size, build, and use? A: Light horse; Pony; Miniature horse; Draft horse S: 175:28 2) What gaits are performed in light horse Pleasure Driving? A: Walk, Park gait and Road gait S: 179:83 3) What percent protein must a feed have to be considered a ‘protein supplement’? A: 30-40% S: 174:58 4) During what ages can estimating age of the horse be closely estimated due to the eruption of baby and permanent teeth? A: Birth to 5 years S: 174:116 5) Over eating of grain is the most common cause of what equine health condition? A: Founder or Laminitis S: 174:100 6) What is the term used to describe white extending from the coronet and past the midpoint of cannon? A: Stocking S: 174:78 7) What internal parasite spends its larvae stage in the stomach and the adult lays its eggs on the horse’s haircoat? A: Bot S: 174:132 8) What would be a disqualification from the registry for the American Quarter Pony? A: Animal is not in appropriate height ranges (also Pinto, Appaloosa and Albino colors) S: 174:71(69) End of One-on-One Questions 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Toss-up Questions: 9) Identify 4 characteristics that good stock horses are noted for.
A: Quiet disposition, Moderate size, Heavy muscling, Soundness, Versatility S: 174:65 10) Name five (5) main stock horse breeds.
A: Quarter Horse, Paint, Appaloosa, Buckskin, Palomino, Arabian, Morgan S: 174:63 BONUS: Name four (4) facial markings on the horse.
A: Star, Snip, Strip, Star & Strip, Bald face, Disconnected star, strip & snip, Blaze, Star. (Also accept bonnet and apron) S: 174:77 11) What is the difference in the way Hunter horses and Western horses are set-up in showmanship? A: Hunter horses are posed with the front feet square and the back feet offset and Western horses are posed with all four feet square.
S: 174:46 12) When giving oral reasons, what is the name for the statement that is made between pairs of horses which indicates you are moving on to the next pair? A: Transition statement S: 175:45 13) Name 2 common draft horse bits A: Snaffle; Buxton; Elbow; Liverpool S: 179:24 BONUS: Name the four (4) bones from the fetlock to the end of the leg.
A: Long pastern bone (Proximal or 1st Phalanx), Short pastern bone (Middle or 2nd Phalanx), Coffin bone (Distal or 3rd phalanx), Navicular bone, Proximal Sesamoid S: 175:25 14) On average, how much water can a horse drink per day? A: 12 to 20 gallons S: 174:57 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 15) What is another term used to describe a horse that is out of condition.
A: Soft S: 174:55 16) Define neck reining.
A: The horse turns in response to the weight of the rein against the neck on the side opposite the direction of the turn.
S: 174:33 17) This term is used to describe a twisting of the striding leg around the supporting leg, such that the hooves land in a straight line.
A: Rope-walking S: 174:85 BONUS: List three (3) classifications of anthelmintics used to control internal parasites.
A: Avermectins/Ivermectin; Moxydectin; Praziquantel; Pyrantel Tartrate (powder) or Pyrantel Pamoate (paste); Benzimidazoles; Piperazine S: 174:139 18) How can you tell if a horse is truly gray or if they are white? A: Grays have dark skin while White horses have pink skin S: 175:42 19) Name the three criteria showmanship classes are judged on.
A: Appearance of the animal; Appearance of the exhibitor and tack; Presentation and performance of the horse in the ring.
S: 174:44 or 179:15-17 20) What term is given to “conduct becoming to an individual involving fair and honest competition, courteous relations, and graceful acceptance of the results”.
A: Sportsmanship S: 174:63 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 21) What breed is known for pacing or trotting harness races? A: Standardbreds S: 175:34 Bonus: Give four (4) serious faults while “showing” in showmanship. A: Knocking over marker(s) on pattern; Working the wrong side of the cones; Rearing, Kicking at another horse, handler or judge or continuously circling the handler and refusing to remain posed; Omission or addition of maneuvers; Failure to do required gait on pattern; Leading on wrong side of horse; Complete failure to move around horse & obstructing the judge’s view; Exhibitor touching the horse with hands or feet (not including donkeys or draft) to pose the horse; Standing directly in front of the horse; and Turns of more than 90 degrees made toward the handler S: 179:22 22) What are the three (3) types of colic typically seen in the horse? A: Gas colic; Impaction colic; Torsion (displacement) colic S: 174:100 23) What bacteria causes Strangles in horses? A: Streptococcus equi S: 174:126 24) List three (3) common symptoms of a horse with lice.
A: Rubbing, biting and other signs of itchiness; Patches of skin with no hair; and a generally unthrifty appearance.
S: 174:140 End of Round 10 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division ROUND 11 One-on-One Questions: 1) Name two (2) problems of a flat-footed horse.
A: They bruise easily and they are hard to keep shod because the sole pushes on the shoe and loosens it.
S: 175:25 2) In the 4H production division, how are halter classes judged? A: 90% conformation of the horse, 10% on showmanship S: 179:29 3) What is the average weight range for a pony? A: 500 to 900 pounds (227kg to 410kg) S: 174:58 4) Name the 3 main parasites found in the horse.
A: Strongyles (bloodworms), Ascarids (roundworms), and Bots S: 174:131-133 5) What is the maximum length of shank on a curb bit in 4H? A: 8 ½ inches S: 179:24 6) What term describes the straps on an English saddle where the girth attaches? A: Billets S: 174:24 7) Name three breeds that compete in racing.
A: Thoroughbred; Quarter Horse; Standardbred; Arabian; Appaloosa S: 175:33-35 8) How do you measure the length of an English saddle? A: Measure from nail on the side of the pommel to the top center of the cantle.
S: 174:23 End of One-on-One Questions Toss-up Questions: 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 9) What is the judging term for a horse that has too much angle in the hock joint? A: Sickle hocked S: 175:23 10) The Welsh pony cannot be what two colors? A: Piebald and Skewbald S: 175:36 11) In gymkhana classes, when does the timing begin and end? A: Starts when the horse’s nose crosses the starting line & stops when it crosses the finish line.
S: 179:64 BONUS: Driving Reinsmanship class is judged on what three (3) criteria and what are the point values for each? A: Cleanliness & condition of horse & equipment = 25pts Rail Work = 25pts Pattern Work = 50pts S: 179:84 12) How many horses are judged in a 4H horse judging class? A: 4 horses S: 175:10 13) In Production Division, how are halter classes judged? A: 90% conformation of the horse and 10% showmanship S: 179:29 14) What color are buckskin’s dorsal stripes? A: Buckskins do not have dorsal stripes S: 175:42 15) Where do shoe boils occur? A: On the elbow S: 175:13 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 16) Why are there not any true albino horses? A: The gene is lethal S: 175:43 17) What 4H class(s) prohibits the use of a leased animal as the project animal? A: Production Division classes S: 179:34 BONUS: Name three of the four qualifications required for a Judge to be listed in the annual 4H Horse Show Judges list.
A: 1) Complete an annual application, 2) Attend a state judges clinic every other year, 3) Pass the rulebook exam, 4) Have at least 3 evaluations turned in over the past 2 years.
S: 179:8 18) What is one name for an eye that is some shade between white and blue? A: China eyed, Glass eyed, Cotton eyed, or Blue eyed S: 174:76 19) What is the distance between poles in Pole Bending? A: 21 feet S: 179:52 20) How many types of internal parasites are there? A: More than 60 S: 174:130 21) What type of knot must be used for a legal tie in calf roping? A: Half-hitch S: 179:56 BONUS: A well balanced horse divides into three equal points as viewed from the side.
Describe the 3 equal parts.
A: 1) Point of shoulder to girth, 2) Girth to point of hip, 3) Hip to buttocks S: 175:12 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 22) What is the anatomical name for the knee? A: Carpus S: 175:11 23) On what two criteria is the 4H Team Tournament class judged? A: Uniformity and Coordination S: 179:82 BONUS: What dewormer kills onchocerca and bots? A: Ivermectin (Quest also acceptable) S: 172:35 24) Which vertebrae form the top of the croup? A: Sacral or Sacral and first few coccygeal S: 175:11 End of Round 11 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division EXTRA QUESTIONS 1.
What, if present, can cause your horse to toss its head when a bit is placed in its mouth? A: Wolf teeth S: 191R:9 2.
When evaluating the balance of a horse, the horse should divide equally into how many parts? A: 3 S: 175:12 3.
What is the result when a horse runs into a wall or fence at any time while in the arena for a gymkhana class? A: Disqualification S: 179:44 4.
What criteria are being judged in a western pleasure class? A: Manners; Quality of Movement; Responsiveness S: 179:33 5.
What are the only two classes that a gag bit is acceptable? A: Roping and Gymkhana S: 179:19 6.
At what gait is lameness consistently observable? A: Trot S: 175:25 7.
In Saddleseat classes, do you turn toward the wall or away from it? A: Either way is allowed S: 179:31 8.
What can a horseman do to keep his saddle in good repair, comfortable and lasting forever? A: Regularly clean it with saddle soap and oil it S: 174:144 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 9.
Specifically, what is the common term for the third metacarpal bone? A: Front cannon S: 175:11 10.
Wind puffs are indications of what? A: Stress from hard work S: 175:24 11.
What is the maximum height permitted for Shetland ponies in the United States? A: 46” at the withers (11.5 hands) S: 175:36 12.
In Production Longe-line, how much time does the exhibitor have to show their horse? A: 90 seconds S: 179:38 13.
How old must the exhibitor be to show a production horse at the State Fair? A: 13 years old S: 179:34 14.
The ribs attach to which vertebrae of the horse? A: Thoracic S: 175:11 15.
What term is used to describe the removal of undesirable horses from the herd? A: Culling S: 175:4 16.
How many points are deducted for dropping the slicker or object required to be carried on a course in the Trail class? A: 5 points per occurrence S: 179:46 17.
At what age do fillies and colts reach puberty? A: Between 12 and 18 months of age 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division S: 174:144 18.
If a pastern is too short or upright, what will it lack? A: Concussion-absorbing capacity S: 175:24 19.
How many days does a bot typically migrate in the horse’s mouth? A: 7-14 days S: 174:132 20.
In When using a double-rigged Western saddle, what should the rear girth be attached to besides the saddle? A: The front girth S: 191R:9 21.
Name 3 joints that are found on the front part of the horse.
A: Shoulder; Elbow; Knee; Fetlock; Pastern; Coffin S: 175:11 22.
Name two joints other than the hock that absorb concussion.
A: Fetlock, Shoulder, Knee, Stifle S: 175:16, 25 23.
What are the three (3) varieties of Equine Encephalomyelitis? A: Easter, Western, or Venezuelan S: 174:126 24.
What American breed of horse was founded by one stallion? A: Morgan S: 175:34 25.
In roping events, the person who notifies the judge of completion of a tie is called what? A: Field Flagger S: 179:68 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division EXTRA BONUS QUESTIONS 1.
Describe the proper way to hold the reins when using a double bridle.
A: The snaffle rein is held outside the little finger, and the curb rein is held between the ring and little finger.
S: 174:40 2.
Driving Reinsmanship class is judged on what three (3) criteria and what are the point values for each? A: Cleanliness & condition of horse and equipment = 25pts Rail Work = 25pts Pattern Work = 50pts S: 179:84 3.
Starting at letter A of the small dressage arena and going counter clockwise, what are the letters on the perimeter of the arena? A: A, F, B, M, C, H, E, K S: 179:89 4.
Give three (3) criteria by which to divide classes in a horse show.
A: Age of exhibitor; Experience level of horse or rider; To maintain safety S: 179:11 5.
Name two (2) breeds mentioned in 4-H publications in which breeding stock must pass evaluation to be in the official stud registry.
A: Friesian and Trakehner S: 174:69-70 6.
Give four (4) things that will cause penalty score of zero in a trail class.
A: 1) Performing obstacles out of specified order; 2) Equipment failure that delays finish of pattern; 3) Touching horse on neck to lower head or to use hand or reins to instill fear or give praise; 4) Fall to ground by horse and/or rider; 5) Failure to enter, exit or work obstacle from correct side or direction; 6) Failure to work obstacle as described on course pattern; 7) Failure to complete three or more obstacles.
S: 179:45-46 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 7.
Name four parts of scoring for ground roping.
A: Building the loop, Flat 3-point swing, Delivery of loop & accuracy, Pulling & Pitching slack.
S: 179:72 8.
List in order of total numbers (most to least) the draft breeds seen in the United States.
A: Belgian; Percheron; Clydesdale; Shire; and Suffolk S: 174:67 9.
Name three organs that roundworms primarily travel to once inside the body cavity? A: Liver; Heart; Lungs S: 174: 10.
What is the correct footfall sequence for a horse cantering correctly on the left lead? A: Right hind, Diagonal left hind & right front together, then Left front S: 175:20 11.
What five (5) criteria are used to judge pleasure (Western, Hunt Seat and Saddleseat) performance classes? A: Functional correctness, Manners, Responsiveness, Gait Quailty, Conformation S: 175:25 12.
What three (3) traits differ among breeds? A: Neck placement and shape; Slope of croup; Width of rear leg placement S: 175:14 13.
List four (4) bits suitable for Draft driving.
A: Snaffles; Buxton; Elbow; and Liverpool S: 179:27 14.
What are the sizes of horses, large and medium ponies, and small equine according to the 4-H rules? A: Horse is over 58” (14-2 hands); Large pony is over 54” (13-2 hands) but not exceeding 58” (14-2 hands); Medium pony is over 50” (12-2 hands) but not exceeding 54” (13-2 hands); Small equine is 50” (12-2 hands) and under.
S: 179:12 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Tie Breaker 1 1.
A: S: What breed of pony is native to the west coast of Ireland? Connemara 174: 2.
How many points are deducted for performing a simple lead change in western riding? A: S: 3.
A: S: 4.
A: S: 5.
A: S: 3 points 179:46 Where is the seat located on an English saddle? Between the pommel and the cantle 174:24 What is the function of synovial fluid? It lubricates the joints 175:22 Most riders use which leg to cue the horse to take a right lead? Left 174:31 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Tie Breaker 2 1.
A: S: 2.
A: S: 3.
A: S: 4.
A: S: 5.
A: S: Depth of heart and spring of rib are good indicators of what? Lung capacity and Endurance 175:26 What is the most popular breed of horse in the US today? The American Quarter Horse 175:33 What is the natural two beat lateral gait of some horses? The Pace 174:91 The tibia and fibula make up what part of the horse? Gaskin 175:11 Describe the term pigeon toed.
When the horse’s toes point in 175:20 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division Tie Breaker 3 1.
A: S: What is the name for an extremely weak pastern on a horse? Coon-footed 175:24 2.
In Western Pleasure class how many points are subtracted for failure to get a true gait? A: S: 3.
A: S: 4.
A: S: 5.
A: S: 10 points 179:39 What is the anatomical name for the chest bone of the horse? Sternum 175:11 What is the 4-H motto? “To Make The Best Better” All 4-H Literature What class of nutrient is important for building teeth and bones? Minerals 174:57 2009 State 4-H Horse Bowl Contest – Junior Division 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round One One-On-One 1 C1 Q.
At what age do the permanent 3rd or corner incisors erupt? 4 1/2 years HIH 240-1 430/2 2 C2 Q.
S. — (Two Part) When considering vision, where are the horse’s two blind spots? Directly to the rear, behind its hindquarters Directly below the head, or directly in front HIH 1220-1 420/2 A. S. 20 Q. What breed is being described – this draft breed is a descendant of the medieval charger breed, its color is all shades of chestnut, and it originated in Suffolk County, England.
Suffolk Punch DET pg 259 200/2 A.
S. 21 Q. Thoroughpin is a soft, fluid-filled enlargement of the outside of the joint that can be pushed freely from the outside to the inside surface of the joint by palpation.
What joint is it found in? The hock Evans pg 165, Lewis pg 406 640/3 A.
S. 5 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round One 22 — Knobs are found on the end of which farrier tool to allow it to be easily distinguished from nippers? Pull offs or pinchers YLM 116-1 900/2 A.
S. End One-On-One 3 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round Two Begin Open Questions 13.
What breed of horse is best described as a horse with a small build, long arching neck, high tail carriage, chiseled head, and a dished face? The Arabian HIH 150-1, Evans, p. 17 200/2 A.
S. 14 Q.
S. Most plant poisonings occur in horses during what 2 seasons? Spring and summer Lewis pg 301 770/3 15 Q.
A. Name two causes of acute laminitis.
Enterotoxemia from excessive grain intake Excessive foot concussion or fatigue Sudden weather changes Infections Toxins or poisons Allergies Colic Changes in feed Drugs Retained placenta (foal founder) YLM 334-2 815/3 — Q. What is the “proper term” for the allergic skin reaction commonly called hives or protein bumps? Urticaria DET pg 280 860/3 A.
S. 5 2006 Eastern National 4-H Horse Bowl Round Three 21 Q.
What breed of horse is described as having contributed to almost every major American horse breed and is the oldest of the American breeds: Unlike most breeds this breed traces its foundation to a single stallion named Figure and is the only breed named after a horse.
The Morgan HIH 151-1, Evans pg 6 0200/2 A.
S. 22 Q. Buttercups are toxic to horses when consumed on pasture.
Why would buttercups in hay not be considered toxic? They are not toxic when they are dried Lewis pg 306 770/3 A.
S. 23 Q. — End One-On-One 3 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round Four Begin Open Questions 13 Q.
S. Which 3 breeds were combined to develop the Paso Fino breed? Barb, Andalusian, Spanish Jennet AYHC 161-1 420/3 14 Q. What type of hammer would you use to shape and make shoes on the anvil? Rounding or turning hammer YLM 116-2 900/2 A.
S. 15 Q. (Two Part) What hormone in the horse helps control glucose levels by decreasing them and in what organ is it produced? Insulin, pancreas Evans pg 127, Kainer plate 54 490/3 A.
S. — 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round Four 17 Q.
Other than dust and mold, what ventilation problem does storing hay above stalls create? A.
Retention of heat and moisture (accept either – also accept fire – it would cause a ventilation problem and is a negative aspect of storing hay) YLM 107-3 920/3 S. 18 Q. Name the breed that includes the following famous names in its history – Messenger, Greyhound, Hambletonian, Dan Patch, and Niatross.
Standardbred Evans pg 28-9 200/3 A.
S. 19 Q.
The Americana is a synthetic pony breed and the result of crossing what 2 breeds? A.
Shetland and Hackney Evans pg 66 1000/2 20 Q.
A. (Two part) The term ergot has two distinct meanings.
What are they? Ergot is a fungus found on cereal grain plants that is toxic to horses A small horny growth at the base of the fetlock Lewis pg 388 0700/4 S. 21 Q.
S. What is the only artery that carries “un-oxygenated” blood? Pulmonary artery Kainer Plate 57 5 — End One-On-One 3 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round Five Begin Open Questions 13 Q. What pack saddle is being described – normally a centerfirerigged, single cinched with a half-breed, and is best suited for sling loads? Decker HIH 1125-1 1020/3 A.
S. 14 Q. Identify the horse color from the following description – body color yellowish or gold; mane and tail may be black, brown, red, yellow, white or mixed; usually has a dorsal stripe, zebra stripes on legs and transverse stripe over the withers.
Dun HIH 140-1 300/3 A.
S 15 Q.
S. (Two Part) What are the two major components of blood? Plasma (not serum) and cells Evans pg 117. 440/3 — 27 Q. (Two part question) What is the minimum recommendation for the size and ceiling height of a breeding shed? A.
Size – at least 20’ x 20’ Evans pg 781 700/4 Ceiling height – 12’ to 15’ 28 Q. What structure on the ventral surface of the hoof is used as the guideline for shaping the hoof and nail placement? White line HIH 525-1 900/3 A.
S. 29 Q. What breed of horse is described as having a primary color of chestnut, but includes a wide range of other colors, having a refined head with small ears, a long neck with considerable arch, a high withers, used today primarily as a show horse and can be 3 or 5 gaited and shown in fine harness? American Saddlebred Horse HIH 156-1, Evans pgs 38-9 200/3 A.
S. 30. Q.
S. What is the minimum width for a stall door? 4 feet YLM 207-2, HIH 320-6 920/3 7 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round Five 31 Q.
What class of horse, as defined for feeding management, might require increased quantities in the diet or unrestricted access to free choice salt? Working horses (lose salt through sweating) HIH 710-7 750/4 A.
S. — Q. In “general terms” what does the horse’s adrenal gland produce? Hormones DET pg 4, Evans pg 127 490/3 A.
S. 1 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round Six 5.
Which draft breed has a gestation length 15 to 20 days longer than any other draft mare? Belgian Lewis 242 0200/4 A.
C2 Q. Considering the stomach, small intestine and large intestine, where do feeds being processed by the horse spend the least period of time? Stomach (15 minutes) YLM 203-1 430/4 A.
C3 Q. — 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round Nine 24.
Name one plant that can cause a Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency? Horsetail (snake grass, marestail, horserush) or bracken fern Lewis pg. 319-320 770/4 A.
S. 25. Q.
Diamonds are the only other substance that is harder than this metal alloy that will double or triple the life of a shoe.
What is the name of this metal alloy? A.
Borium Evans pg 739 920/5 Toss Up – Bonus Attached 26.
Even though a complete feed contains all of the nutrients needed by the horse, what two dietary nutrients should your horse always have available? A.
Water and salt Lewis pg 385 700/4 (Bonus Question) Name four things horses shown at Halter Class are judged on.
Type (breed type) Conformation Quality Substance (muscling or condition) Soundness (way of going) Color Sex character 1010/4 A. S.
DET pg 129 Resume Open Questions 7 2007 State 4-H Horse Bowl – Senior Division Round Nine 28.
What is the proper name of the structure of the uterus which is being described? It is composed of two sheets of tissue – one longitudinal and one circular, it is the middle layer, and it is responsible for powerful contractions of the uterus at birth of the foal.
Myometrium HIH 910-3 480/4 A.
S. 29. Q.
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